New ! Commerce MCQ Practise Tests



All Chapter 1 Mark

12th Standard

    Reg.No. :
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Commerce

Time : 03:00:00 Hrs
Total Marks : 167

    Choose the Correct Answer: 

    167 x 1 = 167
  1. Dividing the work into small tasks is known as ______.

    (a)

    Discipline

    (b)

    Unity

    (c)

    Division of work

    (d)

    Equity

  2. With a wider span, there will be ________ hierarchical levels.

    (a)

    More

    (b)

    Less

    (c)

    Multiple

    (d)

    Additional

  3. A reporting relationship in which an employe receives order from, and reports to only on supervisor is known as

    (a)

    Unity of direction

    (b)

    Unity of command

    (c)

    Centralization

    (d)

    Planning

  4. ____________ requires a complete change in the outlook of both management and workers

    (a)

    Group discussion

    (b)

    Rule of Thumb

    (c)

    Cooperation

    (d)

    Mental revolution

  5. Which of the following is not a main function?

    (a)

    Decision-making

    (b)

    Planning

    (c)

    Organising

    (d)

    Staffing

  6. _______ is included in every managerial function.

    (a)

    Co-ordinating

    (b)

    Controlling

    (c)

    Staffing

    (d)

    Organising

  7. Nothing can be performed without

    (a)

    Organising

    (b)

    Staffing

    (c)

    Planning

    (d)

    Controlling

  8. _________ refers to placement of right persons in the right jobs.

    (a)

    Directing

    (b)

    Planning

    (c)

    Controlling

    (d)

    Staffing

  9. __________ System gives full Scope to the Individual Strength and Responsibility.

    (a)

    MBO

    (b)

    MBE

    (c)

    MBM

    (d)

    MBA

  10. Delegation of Authority is Easily Done with the Help of _______.

    (a)

    MBM

    (b)

    MBE

    (c)

    MBO

    (d)

    MBA

  11. Management by objective (MBO) is also known as

    (a)

    Management by results

    (b)

    Management by goals

    (c)

    Management by planning

    (d)

    Management by evaluation

  12. _________ is a time consuming process.

    (a)

    MBE

    (b)

    KRA

    (c)

    MBO

    (d)

    None of these

  13. Primary market is also called as _______.

    (a)

    Secondary market

    (b)

    Money market

    (c)

    New Issue Market

    (d)

    Indirect Market

  14. Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs _______.

    (a)

    Immediately

    (b)

    In the future

    (c)

    Uncertain

    (d)

    After one month

  15. List I List II
    i) Savings Mobilization 1) Flow of funds
    ii) National Growth 2) Government securities
    iii) Marketable assets 3) Pension funds
    iv) Non-marketable assets 4) Household individuals
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 1 2 3
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 4 1
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 1 2
  16. __________ is the market for short term financial claim.

    (a)

    Debt market

    (b)

    Equity market

    (c)

    Money market

    (d)

    Capital market

  17. Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the ______.

    (a)

    First Time

    (b)

    Second Time

    (c)

    Three Time

    (d)

    Several Times

  18. Participants in the capital market includes ______.

    (a)

    Individuals

    (b)

    Corporate

    (c)

    Financial Institutions

    (d)

    All of the above

  19.   List I   List II
    i) Hard commodities 1) Financial risk
    ii) Soft commodities 2) Scripless and floorless
    iii) Derivatives market 3) Coffee and sugar
    iv) NSEI 4) Rubber and iron
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 4 1
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 2 1 4
  20. ____________ commodities are raw materials typically mined.

    (a)

    Hard

    (b)

    Soft

    (c)

    Both

    (d)

    None of these

  21. Money Market Institutions are _____

    (a)

    Investment Houses

    (b)

    Mortgage Banks

    (c)

    Reserve Bank of india

    (d)

    Commercial Banks and Discount Houses

  22. A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred to as a _____

    (a)

    Treasury Bill

    (b)

    Certificate of Deposit

    (c)

    Commercial Bill

    (d)

    Government Securities

  23. ____ are the nerve centre of the whole money market.

    (a)

    Commercial banks

    (b)

    Reserve bank

    (c)

    State bank

    (d)

    Indian Overseas bank

  24. _____ is an instrument drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods.

    (a)

    Treasury bill

    (b)

    Certificate of deposit

    (c)

    Commercial bill

    (d)

    None of these

  25. Stock exchanges deal in

    (a)

    Goods

    (b)

    Services

    (c)

    Financial Securities

    (d)

    Country's Currency

  26. Jobbers transact in a stock exchange ____.

    (a)

    For their Clients

    (b)

    For their Own Transactions

    (c)

    For other Brokers

    (d)

    For other Members

  27. A bear is a

    (a)

    Premium hunter

    (b)

    Optimistic speculator

    (c)

    Pessimistic speculator

    (d)

    Tejiwala

  28. _____ are not allowed to enter in the trading circles of the stock exchange.

    (a)

    Insiders

    (b)

    Outsiders

    (c)

    Workers

    (d)

    Managers

  29. The headquarters of SEBI is ______

    (a)

    Calcutta

    (b)

    Bombay

    (c)

    Chennai

    (d)

    Delhi

  30. _____ was the first company to trade its shares in Demat form.

    (a)

    Tata Industries

    (b)

    Reliance Industries

    (c)

    Infosys

    (d)

    Birla Industries

  31. Legal document required by securities Exchange commission stating associated risks and detailed description of issues is classified as

    (a)

    prospectus

    (b)

    stated document

    (c)

    risk detailed document

    (d)

    exchange commission document

  32. The exchange generating the largest volume in the United States is the:

    (a)

    American Stock

    (b)

    New York Stock Exchange

    (c)

    Chicago Stock Exchange

    (d)

    Pacific Stock Exchange

  33. Human resource management determines the ______ relationship.

    (a)

    internal, external

    (b)

    employer, employee

    (c)

    Owner, Servant

    (d)

    Principle, Agent

  34. Labour turnover is the rate at which employees _____ the organisation.

    (a)

    enter

    (b)

    leave

    (c)

    Salary

    (d)

    None of the above

  35. Human resource can work as a

    (a)

    unity

    (b)

    reliable

    (c)

    team

    (d)

    none of the these

  36. Human resource exhibits _____ and _____

    (a)

    innovation, creativity

    (b)

    workers, employees

    (c)

    both

    (d)

    none of these

  37. Recruitment is the process of identifying ______.

    (a)

    right man for right job

    (b)

    good performer

    (c)

    Right job

    (d)

    All of the above

  38. Recruitment bridges gap between ____ and ______.

    (a)

    job seeker and job provider

    (b)

    job seeker and agent

    (c)

    job provider and owner

    (d)

    owner and servant

  39. Advertisement is a ______ source of recruitment

    (a)

    internal

    (b)

    external

    (c)

    agent

    (d)

    outsourcing

  40. Transfer is an _____ source of recruitment.

    (a)

    internal

    (b)

    external

    (c)

    outsourcing

    (d)

    None of the above

  41. E-recruitment is possible only through ___ facility.

    (a)

    Computer

    (b)

    Internet

    (c)

    Broadband

    (d)

    4G

  42. Poaching is also called

    (a)

    Raiding

    (b)

    Unsolicited application

    (c)

    Profession

    (d)

    Tutor

  43. Rate which is used to represent that organization is successful at hiring conditions is classified as

    (a)

    selection rate

    (b)

    yield rate

    (c)

    acceptance rate

    (d)

    success base rate

  44. In recruitment cost, costs such as salaries of operating managers and public relation managers are classified as

    (a)

    direct costs

    (b)

    marginal costs

    (c)

    indirect costs

    (d)

    labour costs

  45. In recruitment costs, agency fees, recruitment advertisement and salaries of recruiters is classified as

    (a)

    direct cost

    (b)

    indirect cost

    (c)

    both

    (d)

    none of the above

  46. Comparison between numbers of applications at each preceding stage of recruitment process is classified as

    (a)

    initialization ratio

    (b)

    resultant ratio

    (c)

    yield ratio

    (d)

    application ratio

  47. The recruitment and selection process aimed at right kind of people

    (a)

    At right place

    (b)

    At right time

    (c)

    To do right things

    (d)

    all of the above

  48. The following is a source of recruitment

    (a)

    Advertisement

    (b)

    Reference

    (c)

    Employment agency

    (d)

    All of the above

  49. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads?

    (a)

    Direct

    (b)

    Indirect

    (c)

    Both

    (d)

    none of the above

  50. Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms and luring them away is popularly called as

    (a)

    Competition

    (b)

    Acquisition

    (c)

    Poaching

    (d)

    None of the above

  51. The following is concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the human resources plan

    (a)

    Development

    (b)

    Training

    (c)

    Recruitment

    (d)

    None of these

  52. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment.
    I. Searching
    II. Evaluation and Control
    III. Planning
    IV. Screening
    V. Strategy development

    (a)

    III, II, I, V,IV

    (b)

    III, V, I, IV, II

    (c)

    IV, V, III, II

    (d)

    II, I, IV, V, III

  53.   List I   List II
    i) Transfer 1) Merits of the employees
    ii) Upgrading 2) Managing to learn
    iii) Job rotation 3) Lower position to higher position
    iv) Promotion 4) Deficit staff
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 2 1
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 2 1 4
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 4 3
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 1 3 4
  54.   List I   List II
    i) Advertisement 1) Poaching
    ii) Walkins 2) Online method
    iii) Rival firms 3) Source of requirements
    iv) e-recruitment 4) Nature of work
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 2 1
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 1 4 3
  55. _____ is the process of finding suitable candidates for the various posts in an organisation.

    (a)

    Recruitment

    (b)

    Selection

    (c)

    Training

    (d)

    Placement

  56. _____ acts as a link between job provider and job seeker.

    (a)

    Selection

    (b)

    Training

    (c)

    Motivation

    (d)

    Recruitment

  57. External sources can be classified into _____ sources.

    (a)

    two

    (b)

    three

    (c)

    four

    (d)

    five

  58. _____ has become inevitable external source of recruitment.

    (a)

    Campus recruitment

    (b)

    Rival firms

    (c)

    E-recruitment

    (d)

    None of these

  59. _____ connects the job provider and the job seeker by providing the relevant and required information.

    (a)

    Professional associations

    (b)

    Private employment agencies

    (c)

    Job portals

    (d)

    Deputation

  60. _____ types of firms facilitate recruitment on behalf of client companies at cost.

    (a)

    Professional associations

    (b)

    Employment consultancies

    (c)

    Deputation

    (d)

    Job portals

  61. Recruitment or manpower selection process is the first step in the employment of ______

    (a)

    Labour

    (b)

    Management

    (c)

    Both (A) and (B)

    (d)

    None of the above

  62. _____ is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization.

    (a)

    Advertising

    (b)

    Selection

    (c)

    Recruitment

    (d)

    Staffing

  63. Sources for recruiting should be periodically _____

    (a)

    changed

    (b)

    checked

    (c)

    evaluated

    (d)

    inspired

  64. ______ is not an internal source of recruitment.

    (a)

    Promotion

    (b)

    Transfer

    (c)

    Job rotation

    (d)

    Advaertisement

  65. Promotion is a _____ source recruitment.

    (a)

    suitable

    (b)

    higher

    (c)

    internal

    (d)

    external

  66. Campus selection is a ______ source of recruitment.

    (a)

    internal

    (b)

    external

    (c)

    modern

    (d)

    none of these

  67. The recruitment and selection process aimed at right kind of people.

    (a)

    At right people

    (b)

    At right time

    (c)

    To do right things

    (d)

    All of the above

  68. _____refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.

    (a)

    Selection

    (b)

    Training

    (c)

    Recruitment

    (d)

    Induction

  69. The main aim of selection process is to find out the suitable candidate for

    (a)

    more job

    (b)

    higher salary

    (c)

    specific job

    (d)

    none of these

  70. ________is quite contrary to structured interview.

    (a)

    Panel interview

    (b)

    Unstructured interview

    (c)

    Stress Interview

    (d)

    Guided interview

  71. Vestibule training is provided

    (a)

    On the job

    (b)

    In the class room

    (c)

    In a situation similar to actual working environment

    (d)

    By the committee

  72. ______is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees

    (a)

    Training

    (b)

    Job analysis

    (c)

    Selection

    (d)

    Recruitment

  73. Doctors conference and salesman conference are the examples of

    (a)

    Role play method

    (b)

    Coaching method

    (c)

    Apprentice training method

    (d)

    Seminar / conference method

  74. The planned use of networked information and communications technology for the delivery of training is called

    (a)

    e-learning

    (b)

    role playing

    (c)

    case study

    (d)

    Programmed learning

  75. The marketer initially wants to know in the marketing is_______

    (a)

    Qualification of the customer

    (b)

    Quality of the product

    (c)

    Background of the customers

    (d)

    Needs of the customers

  76. Which one of the market deals in the purchase and sale of shares and debentures?

    (a)

    Stock Exchange Market

    (b)

    Manufactured Goods Market

    (c)

    Local Market

    (d)

    Family Market

  77. Which market is regulated and controlled by certain rules?

    (a)

    Commodity market

    (b)

    Produce exchange market

    (c)

    National market

    (d)

    World Market

  78. Sub-division of marketing is called as

    (a)

    market segmentation

    (b)

    decision of market

    (c)

    allowcation of market

    (d)

    none of these

  79. The initial stage of Marketing system is ______.

    (a)

    Monopoly system

    (b)

    Exchange to Money

    (c)

    Barter system

    (d)

    Self producing

  80. Which one is the example of Intangible product?

    (a)

    Education

    (b)

    Mobiles

    (c)

    Garments

    (d)

    Vehicles

  81. List I List II
    i) Batter system 1) Dominant factor
    ii) Production Orientation 2) Large scale sales promotion 
    iii) Sales orientation 3) Consumer preferences
    iv) Marketing orientation 4) Medium of exchange
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 1 4
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 2 1
  82. ________is the acquisition of goods and services by the seller or industrial user for the purpose of resale.

    (a)

    Selling

    (b)

    Assembling

    (c)

    Buying

    (d)

    Transportation

  83. Selling goods/ services through internet is _______.

    (a)

    Green marketing

    (b)

    E- business

    (c)

    Social marketing

    (d)

    Meta marketing

  84. Which is gateway to internet?

    (a)

    Portal

    (b)

    CPU

    (c)

    Modem

    (d)

    Webnaire

  85. The boundaries of nations are disappearing for exploiting the opportunities of

    (a)

    business

    (b)

    industry

    (c)

    commerce

    (d)

    accounts

  86. E-commerce involves the application of

    (a)

    Knowledge Management Systems

    (b)

    Product Management Systems

    (c)

    Services Management Systems

    (d)

    All of the above

  87. Who is the father of Consumer Movement?

    (a)

    Mahatma Gandhi

    (b)

    Mr. Jhon F.Kennedy

    (c)

    Ralph Nader

    (d)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  88. The General Assembly of United Nations passed resolution of consumer protection guide lines on

    (a)

    1985

    (b)

    1958

    (c)

    1986

    (d)

    1988

  89. List I List II
    i) Sale of goods act 1) 1955
    ii) The Indian contract Act 2) 1937
    iii) The Essential Commodities Act 3) 1982
    iv) The Agricultural products grading and marketing Act 4) 1930
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 4 1
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 2 1
  90. __________ is a king of the market.

    (a)

    Workers

    (b)

    Consumer

    (c)

    Producer

    (d)

    Seller

  91. The final aim of modern marketing is______.

    (a)

    Maximum profit

    (b)

    Minimum profit

    (c)

    Consumer satisfaction

    (d)

    Service to the society

  92. Which of the following is not a consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy?

    (a)

    Right to safety

    (b)

    Right to choose

    (c)

    Right to consume

    (d)

    Right to be informed

  93. Who cheat consumer by using unfair weight and measure?

    (a)

    Producers

    (b)

    Employees

    (c)

    Sellers

    (d)

    Workers

  94. ________ and _______ on the package should provide objective information to buyers.

    (a)

    Advertising, labelling

    (b)

    Labelling, motivating

    (c)

    Planning, labelling

    (d)

    None of these

  95. The International Organisation of Consumers Unions (IOCU) was first established in ______.

    (a)

    1960

    (b)

    1965

    (c)

    1967

    (d)

    1987

  96. A consumer has to be protected against

    (a)

    Defects of product

    (b)

    Deficiencies of product

    (c)

    Unfair and restrictive trade practices

    (d)

    All of the above

  97. The state commission may reverse or confirm the orders passed by the

    (a)

    National Commission

    (b)

    District Forum

    (c)

    Central commission

    (d)

    None of these

  98. Members of state consumer protection council should not exceed

    (a)

    two

    (b)

    five

    (c)

    ten

    (d)

    three

  99. VUCA stands for ________, _________, ________.

    (a)

    Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity

    (b)

    Value, Unavoidable, Company and Authority

    (c)

    Volatility, Uncontrollable, Company and Auction

    (d)

    All of the above

  100. The two major types of business environment are ________ and ________.

    (a)

    Positive and Negative

    (b)

    Internal and External

    (c)

    Good and Bad

    (d)

    Allowable and Unallowable

  101. _________ refers to the factors outside the business.

    (a)

    External environment

    (b)

    Internal environment

    (c)

    Both 'a' and 'b'

    (d)

    None of these

  102. _________ economy is a combination of both state owned and private sector ownership.

    (a)

    Socialistic

    (b)

    Capitalistic

    (c)

    Mixed

    (d)

    None of these

  103. ________ means permitting the private sector to setup industries which were previously reserved for public sector.

    (a)

    Liberalisation

    (b)

    Privatisation

    (c)

    Globalisation

    (d)

    Public Enterprise

  104. _________ ownership makes bold management decisions due to their strong foundation in the international level.

    (a)

    Private

    (b)

    Public

    (c)

    Corporate

    (d)

    MNC's

  105. Globalization can create problems for business because.

    (a)

    it can result in more competition

    (b)

    it increases vulnerability to the political risk and uncertainty when operating abroad

    (c)

    it means that they can increase price

    (d)

    none of the above

  106. List I List II
    i) IMF 1) Liberalization, privatization and
    Globalization
    ii) NEP 2) International Bank for Reconstrction
    and Development
    iii) LPG 3) New Economic polic
    iv) IBRD 4) International Monetary Fund
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 2 1
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 1 4 3
  107. In which of the following types, the ownership is immediately transferred to buyer ?

    (a)

    When goods are ascertained

    (b)

    When goods are appropriate

    (c)

    Delivery to the carrier

    (d)

    Sale or return basis

  108. ____ is a stipulation which is collateral to main purpose of contract.

    (a)

    Warranty

    (b)

    Condition

    (c)

    Right

    (d)

    Agreement

  109. _________ has unlimited rights of the property purchased against the whole world.

    (a)

    Seller

    (b)

    Buyer

    (c)

    Both 'a' and 'b'

    (d)

    None of these

  110. ________ means that the goods must be saleable in the market under that denomination.

    (a)

    Sale by sample

    (b)

    Wholesomeness

    (c)

    Merchantability

    (d)

    None of these

  111. When crossing restrict further negotiation

    (a)

    Not negotiable crossing

    (b)

    General Crossing

    (c)

    A\c payee crossing

    (d)

    Special crossing

  112. A cheque will become stale after _______ months of its date:

    (a)

    3

    (b)

    4

    (c)

    5

    (d)

    1

  113. ____________ is to be made on the face of the instrument or on its back.

    (a)

    Cheque

    (b)

    Bill of exchange

    (c)

    Endorsement

    (d)

    None of these

  114. A negotiable instrument is freely transferable, by delivery if it is a/an _______________ instrument.

    (a)

    order

    (b)

    bearer

    (c)

    both 'a' and 'b'

    (d)

    none of these

  115. Which of the below is a factor of production?

    (a)

    Land

    (b)

    Labour

    (c)

    Enterpreneurship

    (d)

    All of the above

  116. Entrepreneur is not classified as _____.

    (a)

    Risk Bearer

    (b)

    Innovator

    (c)

    Employee

    (d)

    Organizer

  117. What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?

    (a)

    Spirit of enterprice

    (b)

    Flexibility

    (c)

    Self Confidence

    (d)

    All of the above

  118. Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?

    (a)

    Planning

    (b)

    Marketing

    (c)

    Organizing

    (d)

    Controlling

  119. Which of the below is a commercial function?

    (a)

    Accounting

    (b)

    Coordination

    (c)

    Discovery of idea

    (d)

    Planning

  120. The person who establishes business is termed as

    (a)

    Entrepreneur

    (b)

    Intrapreneur

    (c)

    Promoter

    (d)

    Manager

  121. The output of an entrepreneurial process ends up in establishing an

    (a)

    environment

    (b)

    enterprise

    (c)

    organisation

    (d)

    none of these

  122. An Irishman described the entrepreneur to be a person who assumes risk inherent in the venture started by him who said these words?

    (a)

    Jean Baptize

    (b)

    Knight

    (c)

    Schumpeter

    (d)

    Richard Cantillon

  123. "Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity" - who said these words?

    (a)

    Schumpeter

    (b)

    Richard

    (c)

    Knight

    (d)

    Jean Baptize

  124. Women entrepreneurship is gaining importance in India in the wake of economic

    (a)

    liberalisation

    (b)

    globalisation

    (c)

    (a) or (b)

    (d)

    (a) and (b)

  125. "Women who innovate, imitate or adopt a business activity are known as women entrepreneurs".

    (a)

    Jean Baptize

    (b)

    Knight

    (c)

    Richard

    (d)

    Schumpeter

  126. CWEI was registered as a civil society in the year

    (a)

    1990

    (b)

    1992

    (c)

    1996

    (d)

    1998

  127. The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is

    (a)

    idea generation

    (b)

    determination

    (c)

    investigation

    (d)

    preparation of business plan

  128. Name the institution which was set up in 1982 to promote integrated rural development.

    (a)

    NSIC

    (b)

    NABARD

    (c)

    SIDBI

    (d)

    NCEUS

  129. Name the institution which is set up as an apex bank to provide direct or indirect financial assistance under difference scheme.

    (a)

    SIDBI

    (b)

    NSIC

    (c)

    NABARD

    (d)

    CWEI

  130. A women entrepreneur is supposed to have a minimum financial interest in share capital of entrepreneur's enterprise:

    (a)

    35 percent

    (b)

    51 percent

    (c)

    25 percent

    (d)

    None of the above

  131. List I List II
    i) Entrepreneur 1) Military expeditions
    ii) Musical institution 2) Realm of economics
    iii) Sixteenth century 3) Oxford Dictionary
    iv) Eighteenth century 4) French language
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 4 1
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 1 2 4
  132. List I List II
    i) Spirit of enterprise 1) Rigid fashion
    ii) Flexibility 2) Manpower, technology
    iii) Resource mobilisation 3) Sympathy and empathy
    iv) Leadership 4) Setbacks or frustrations.
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 1 2 3
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 1 4
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 2 1
  133. List I List II
    i) Innovation 1) Employee
    ii) GDP 2) Human relational skills
    iii) Intrapreneur 3) Growth of entrepreneurship
    iv) Manager 4) New territory or new technology
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 1 4
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 1 2 4
  134. __________ defines an entrepreneur as the director or a manager of a musical institution.

    (a)

    American Dictionary

    (b)

    London Dictionary

    (c)

    Oxford Dictionary

    (d)

    None of these

  135. Entrepreneurs are classified into _________ groups.

    (a)

    two

    (b)

    three

    (c)

    four

    (d)

    five

  136. Entrepreneur should have a ____________in order to achieve high goals in the business.

    (a)

    spirit of enterprise

    (b)

    self confidence

    (c)

    flexibility

    (d)

    innovation

  137. Entrepreneur should have a ____________ to visualise future business environment.

    (a)

    leadership

    (b)

    ability

    (c)

    foresight

    (d)

    decision making

  138. _________ is dependent on the entrepreneur.

    (a)

    Intrapreneur

    (b)

    Manager

    (c)

    Consumer

    (d)

    Organisation

  139. ___________ does not share in profits of venture.

    (a)

    Entrepreneur

    (b)

    Intrapreneur

    (c)

    Promoter

    (d)

    Manager

  140. __________ is a salaries employee in the entity set up for carrying on the venture.

    (a)

    Owner

    (b)

    Entrepreneur

    (c)

    Manager

    (d)

    None of these

  141. Women constitute _________ of the economic enterprise.

    (a)

    one third

    (b)

    two third

    (c)

    one fourth

    (d)

    two fourth

  142. _________ is accredited by Government of India.

    (a)

    STEP

    (b)

    CWEI

    (c)

    DIC

    (d)

    TREAD

  143. __________ reduces the efficiency of operating the business successfully.

    (a)

    Problem of finance

    (b)

    Limited mobility

    (c)

    Lack of education

    (d)

    Stiff competition

  144. ___________ are more prone to a variety of emotions.

    (a)

    Men

    (b)

    Women

    (c)

    Children

    (d)

    None of these

  145. _____________ was the founder of Reliance industries.

    (a)

    Dhirubhai Ambani

    (b)

    Anil Ambani

    (c)

    Mukesh Ambani

    (d)

    Ratna

  146. _________ is famously referred to as India's Bill Gates at a result.

    (a)

    Anil Ambani

    (b)

    Premji

    (c)

    Birla

    (d)

    Dilip Shangavi

  147. The term entrepreneur has been derived from the _____________ language.

    (a)

    Latin

    (b)

    French

    (c)

    English

    (d)

    All of these

  148. Which of the following is the Activity of a Business Entrepreneur?

    (a)

    Production

    (b)

    Marketing

    (c)

    Operation

    (d)

    All of the above

  149. Corporate Entrepreneur is also called as _________

    (a)

    Intrapreneur

    (b)

    Promoter

    (c)

    Manager

    (d)

    Shareholder

  150. Rural entrepreneurs are start a business in

    (a)

    rural locations

    (b)

    towns

    (c)

    cities

    (d)

    none of the above

  151. ____________ entrepreneurs are those who are totally opposed to changes unfolding in the environment.

    (a)

    Technical

    (b)

    Pure

    (c)

    Fabian

    (d)

    Drone

  152. ______ is the Government of India's endeavour to promote culture of innovation and entrepreneurship.

    (a)

    AIM

    (b)

    STEP

    (c)

    SEED

    (d)

    AIC

  153. _____ should cover aspects like sources of finance, technical know-how, source of labour and raw material, market potential and profitability.

    (a)

    Technical Report

    (b)

    Finance Report

    (c)

    Project Report

    (d)

    Progress Report

  154. Make in India initiative was launched in

    (a)

    April 2014

    (b)

    September 2014

    (c)

    May 2014

    (d)

    None of these

  155. __________ is a foremost challenge facing India.

    (a)

    New programmes

     

    (b)

    Innovation

    (c)

    Job Creation

    (d)

    None of these

  156. Specify the document which comes under the Negotiable Instrument Act.

    (a)

    Share Certificate

    (b)

    Share

    (c)

    Share Warrant

    (d)

    Stock

  157. The Companies Act 2013 Prohibits the issue of shares at__________ to the public.

    (a)

    Premium

    (b)

    Par

    (c)

    Discount

    (d)

    Both at par and Premium

  158. The articles of association need to be signed by

    (a)

    all proposed directors

    (b)

    registrar

    (c)

    subscribers of memorandum

    (d)

    none of the above

  159. List I List II
    i) Issue of shares at par 1) Except sweat equity share
    ii) Issue of shares at premium 2) Reserves and surplus
    iii) Issue of securities at discount 3) Write off preliminary expenses
    iv) Bouns shares 4) No legal restrictions
    (a)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    1 2 3 4
    (b)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    2 3 1 4
    (c)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    3 4 2 1
    (d)
    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    4 3 1 2
  160. Which director need not hold qualifying shares.

    (a)

    Directors appointed to Central Government

    (b)

    Directors appointed to Shareholders

    (c)

    Directors appointed to Managing Director

    (d)

    Directors appointed to Board of Directors

  161. According to Companies Act, the Directors must be appointed by the _______.

    (a)

    Central Government

    (b)

    Company Law Tribunal

    (c)

    Company in General Meeting

    (d)

    Board of Directors

  162. The directors should conduct their work with

    (a)

    good faith

    (b)

    utmost care

    (c)

    delegate work

    (d)

    None of these

  163. The first board meeting should be held within ___________ days of the date of incorporation.

    (a)

    30

    (b)

    45

    (c)

    60

    (d)

    75

  164. Board Meetings to be conducted minimum _____ times in a year.

    (a)

    2

    (b)

    3

    (c)

    4

    (d)

    5

  165. A special resolution must be filed with the Registrar within

    (a)

    7 days

    (b)

    14 days

    (c)

    30 days

    (d)

    60 days

  166. The total managerial remuneration payable by a public limited company to its director or manager should not exceed __________ of the net profits of that financial year.

    (a)

    3%

    (b)

    5%

    (c)

    9%

    (d)

    11%

  167. An abstract of receipts and payments upto a date within ___________ days of the report.

    (a)

    3

    (b)

    4

    (c)

    5

    (d)

    7

  168. 4 x 5 = 20
  169. What are the major advantages of MBO? (any 5)

  170. What are the advantages of MBE? (any 5)

  171. Explain the various disadvantages of MBO.

  172. Discuss the disadvantages of MBE.

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