Question Set D

CBSE 12th Standard Biology Biodiversity and Conservation HOT Questions Study Material - QB365

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Questions:

Multiple Choice Question

85 x 1 = 85

Which of the following is a living fossil?

(a)

Moss

(b)

Saccharomyces

(c)

Spirogyra

(d)

Cyas

Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that

(a)

fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors

(b)

frogs will have gills in future

(c)

frogs evolved from gilled ancestors

(d)

fishes were amphibious in the past

Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

(a)

differentiation of mammary glands

(b)

the pressure exerted by amniotic fluid

(c)

the release of oxytocin from pituitary

(d)

fully developed foetus and placenta

1st polar body is formed at which state of oogenesis?

(a)

1st meiosis

(b)

2nd mitosis

(c)

1st mitosis

(d)

differentiation

Identify the correctly matched pair/pairs of the germ layers and their derivatives.
A.ectoderm-epidermis B. endoderm-dermis
C. mesoderm-muscles D. mesoderm-notochord
E. endoderm-enamel of teeth

(a)

A and D only

(b)

A and B only

(c)

A, C and D only

(d)

A, B, C and E only

Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below.Arrange the events in a proper sequence.A-secretion of FSH, B-growth of corpus luteum, C-growth of the follicle and oogenesis, D-ovulation, E-sudden increase in the levels of LH

(a)

A D C E B

(b)

B A C D E

(c)

C A D B E

(d)

A C E D B

Nitrogen oxides produced from the emission of automobiles and power plants, are the source of fine air born particles which lead to

(a)

Photochemical ring

(b)

Dry acid deposition

(c)

Industrial smog

(d)

Wet acid deposition

Which of the following is not done in a wildlife sanctuary?

(a)

fauna is conserved

(b)

flora is conserved

(c)

soil and flora is utilized

(d)

hunting is prohibited

The noise produced in office is normally at the level of

(a)

20 db

(b)

30 db

(c)

40 db

(d)

60 db

10.

Which of the following animals is protected in Kaziranga Sanctuary of Assam?

(a)

Indian bison

(b)

Indian lion

(c)

Indian rhinoceros

(d)

Indian elephant

11.

Common indicator organism of water pollution is

(a)

Eichhornia crassipes

(b)

Escherchia coli

(c)

Entamoeba histolytica

(d)

Lemna pancicostata

12.

If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct

(a)

Hyaenas and Wolves will become scarce

(b)

The wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals

(c)

its gene pool will be lost forever

(d)

The population of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilized

13.

Blood analysis of a patient reveals an usually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following conclusions is most likely to be correct? The patient has been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of

(a)

Chloroform

(b)

Carbondioxide

(c)

Carbon monoxide

(d)

Carbon disulphide

14.

Which one of the following is a pair of endangered species?

(a)

Garden lizard and Mexican poppy

(b)

Rhesus monkey and sal tree

(c)

Indian peacock and Carrot grass

(d)

Hornbill and Indian Aconite

15.

Lead conc. in blood is considered alarming if it is

(a)

30 \(\mu \)g/100 ml

(b)

4 - 6 \(\mu \)g/100 ml

(c)

10 \(\mu \)g/100 ml

(d)

20 \(\mu \)g/100 ml

16.

In your opinion, which is the most effective way to consrve the plant diversity of an area?

(a)

by creating a biosphere reverse

(b)

by creating botanical gardens

(c)

By developing seed bank

(d)

By tissue culture method

17.

In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate

(a)

Reacted with ammonia

(b)

Reacted with CO₂

(c)

Reacted with water

(d)

Reacted with DDT

18.

A terrestrial animal must be able to

(a)

Conserve water

(b)

Actively pumps salts out through the skin

(c)

Excrete large amounts of salt in urine

(d)

Excrete large amounts of water in urine

19.

Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) represents the following range of wavelength

(a)

450-950 nm

(b)

340-450 nm

(c)

400-700 nm

(d)

500-600 nm

20.

In which one of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most?

(a)

Forest

(b)

Desert

(c)

Grassland

(d)

Shrub land

21.

Zone of atmosphere near the earth surface is

(a)

Stratosphere

(b)

Mesosphere

(c)

Troposphere

(d)

Thermosphere

22.

Maximum growth rate occurs in

(a)

senescent phase

(b)

lag phase

(c)

exponential phase

(d)

stationary phase

23.

Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has

(a)

an epiphytic relationship with the alga

(b)

a parasitic relationship with the alga

(c)

a symbiotic relationship with the alga

(d)

a saprophytic relationship with alga

24.

Which of the following walked upright?

(a)

Dryopithecus

(b)

Ramapithecus

(c)

Both (a) and (b)

(d)

Australopithecus

25.

Which of the following evolved first

(a)

Homo Sapiens

(b)

Homo habilis

(c)

Homo erectus

(d)

Tyrannosaurus

26.

The turtle and tortoise evolved from

(a)

Amphibians

(b)

Fishes

(c)

Mammals

(d)

None of these

27.

Which of the following walked like gorillas and chimpanzees?

(a)

Dryopithecus

(b)

Ramapithecus

(c)

Both (a) and (b)

(d)

Australopithecus

28.

Choose the correct answer regarding the ZIFT procedure?

(a)

Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation.

(b)

Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube.

(c)

Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus

(d)

Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus

29.

Which of the following is the component of oral pills?

(a)

Progesterone

(b)

Oxytocin

(c)

Relaxin

(d)

None of these

30.

Amniocentesis is a process to

(a)

determine any disease of heart

(b)

determine any hereditary disease of the embryo

(c)

know about the disease of brain

(d)

grow cell on culture medium

31.

Given below are the four methods and their modes of action in achieving contraception.Select their correct matching from the four options that follows.

control measures	Mode of Action
(A) Pill	1. Prevents sperms reaching cervix
(B) Condom	2. Prevents implication
(C)Vasectomy	3. Prevents ovulation
(D) Copper T	4. Semen contains no sperms

(a)

A	B	C	D
3	4	1	2

(b)

A	B	C	D
2	3	1	4

(c)

A	B	C	D
3	1	4	2

(d)

A	B	C	D
4	1	2	3

32.

Which of the following birth control measures can be considered as the safest?

(a)

the rhythm method

(b)

the use of physical barriers

(c)

termination of unwanted pregnancy

(d)

sterilization techniques

33.

Hybridoma technology has been successfully used in

(a)

production of somatic hybrids

(b)

synthesis of monoclonal antibodies

(c)

synthesis of haemoglobin

(d)

production of alcohol in bulk

34.

Temin and Baltimore are associated with the discovery of

(a)

RNA synthesis

(b)

Transcription

(c)

Reverse transcription

(d)

photorespiration

35.

In DNA replication, leading strand replicates in

(a)

5' ------>3' direction continuously

(b)

3'------>5' direction continuously

(c)

5'----->3' directiom discontinuosly

(d)

3,------->5' direction discontinuously

36.

A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms

(a)

4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes

(b)

8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes

(c)

8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes

(d)

8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes

37.

In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to

(a)

only the wall of the sporangium

(b)

both wall and the sporogenous cells

(c)

wall and the tapetum

(d)

Only tapetum and sporogenous cells

38.

In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt

(a)

50% will be tall with red fruit

(b)

75% will be tall with red fruit

(c)

all the offspring will be tall with red fruit

(d)

25% will be tall with red fruit

39.

Female heterogamy is found in

(a)

Birds

(b)

Grasshopper

(c)

Both a and b

(d)

Drosophila

40.

In human beings, the eggs are:

(a)

Skin lecithal

(b)

Macrolecithal

(c)

Mesolecithal

(d)

Alecithal

41.

Insect resistance trangenic cotton has been produced by inserting a piece of DNA from

(a)

an insect

(b)

a bacterium

(c)

a wild relative of cotton

(d)

a virus

42.

That the mode of DNA replication is semiconservative was demonstrated by

(a)

Khorana

(b)

Watson and Crick

(c)

Meselson and Stahl

(d)

Tayler

43.

Two crosses between the same pair of genotype or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is known as

(a)

Reverse cross

(b)

Dihybrid cross

(c)

Test cross

(d)

Reciprocal cross

44.

A transgene expression can achieve which of the following?

(a)

Prevent expression of a native gene.

(b)

Modify an existing biosynthetic pathway.

(c)

Produce a protein that itself produces the phenotype of interest.

(d)

All of the above

45.

Which of the following combinations of risk are associated with genetically modified food?
I. Toxicity
II. Allergic reaction
III. Antibiotic resistance in micro-organisms present in the alimentary canal.

(a)

I and II

(b)

I, II and III

(c)

I and III

(d)

II and III

46.

Which of the following is used in biowar

(a)

A pathogen

(b)

Toxin from a pathogen

(c)

A delivery system for the bioweapon agent

(d)

All of the above

47.

Insect-pollinated flowers are characterized by

(a)

Large number of pollens

(b)

Dry and smooth pollens

(c)

Sticky and rough pollens

(d)

Heavy pollens

48.

Immunodeficiency can result from which of the following?

(a)

Gene mutation

(b)

Infection

(c)

Malnutrition

(d)

All of the above

49.

Superiority of hybrid over parents is

(a)

Digantism

(b)

Lethality

(c)

Heterosis

(d)

Dwarfism

50.

Nitrogenous base sequence in one strand of DNA is ATGCTTGA, the sequence in the complementary strand will be

(a)

TAGGTAGT

(b)

TACGAACT

(c)

TACGTACT

(d)

TCCGAACT

51.

Which of the following properties of acquired immunity is the basis of vaccination?

(a)

Specificity

(b)

Diversity

(c)

Memory

(d)

Discrimination between self and non self.

52.

Heterozygous purple flower is crossed with recessive white flower. The progeny has the ratio :

(a)

75% purple and 25% white

(b)

50% purple and 50% white

(c)

All purple

(d)

All white

53.

In angiosperms, pollen tubes liberate their male gametes into the

(a)

Central cell

(b)

Antipodal cell

(c)

Egg cell

(d)

Synergids

54.

Jumping genes given by Barbara Mclintock are also called

(a)

Transposons

(b)

Mutons

(c)

Cistrons

(d)

Vectors

55.

Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating agent?

(a)

Mutualism

(b)

Commensalism

(c)

Cooperation

(d)

Coevolution

56.

Viral genome incorporated into host DNA is called

(a)

Prophase

(b)

Prophage

(c)

Bacteriophage

(d)

None of these

57.

LSD is

(a)

Lying diethylamide

(b)

Lysergic acid diethylamide

(c)

Lysing dimethylamide

(d)

Lysergic acid diethylamide

58.

Which is used in molecular genetic engineering?

(a)

Tomato

(b)

Tobacco

(c)

Carrot

(d)

Arabidopsis

59.

Restriction endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from

(a)

Bacteriophages

(b)

Bacterial cells

(c)

Plasmids

(d)

All prokaryotic cells

60.

Intraspecific incompatibility can be overcome by

(a)

Wetting of anthers

(b)

Mixed pollination

(c)

Intraovarian fertilization

(d)

Intraspecific competition

61.

The stimulant present in tea, cocoa and cola drinks is

(a)

Cocaine

(b)

Tannin

(c)

Astringent

(d)

Caffeine

62.

Hashish and Ganja are got from

(a)

Erythroxylon

(b)

Nicotiana

(c)

Papaver

(d)

Cannabis

63.

In which one of the following the BOD (Bio-chemical Oxygen Demand) of Sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order:

(a)

SE < PE < S < DE

(b)

PE < S < SE < DE

(c)

S < DE < PE < SE

(d)

SE < S < PE < DE

64.

Transgenic plants are developed by

(a)

clone and genetically modified genes

(b)

introduction of foreign genes

(c)

genetic engineering

(d)

purified genes

65.

L.S.D, morphine and bhang are respectively obtained from

(a)

Claviceps, Papaver and Cannabis

(b)

Claviceps, Cannabis and Rauwolfia

(c)

Cannabis, Claviceps and Fuscarium

(d)

Claviceps, Rauwolfia and Papaver

66.

Name the cytologist who cultured anthers for the first time.

(a)

Hannig

(b)

Shima Kura

(c)

Sumuki

(d)

Yabuta

67.

Egg apparatus consists of

(a)

egg

(b)

egg and polar nuclei

(c)

Egg and synergids

(d)

Egg and antipodal cells

68.

Bio fertilisers include:

(a)

Blue-green algae, rhizobia, other nitrogen fixing bacteria and mycorrhiza fungi

(b)

Blue-green algae, rhizobia and other nitrogen fixings bacteria

(c)

Rhizobia, other nitrogen fixing bacteria and mycorrhiza fungi

(d)

Blue green algae, rhizobia and mycorrhiza fungi

69.

Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel

(a)

Biofertilizers

(b)

Bio-metallurgical techniques

(c)

Bio-mineralization processes

(d)

Bio-insecticidal plants

70.

Human genome project was discovered by

(a)

Francis Collins and Roderick

(b)

Watson and Crick

(c)

Beadle and Tatum

(d)

Paul Berg and Wollman

71.

Which of the following can be controlled by using biopesticides?

(a)

Insects

(b)

Diseases

(c)

Weeds

(d)

All of them

72.

Who gave the idea that every plant cell is totipotent

(a)

P.R White

(b)

E.C Cocking

(c)

F.C Staward

(d)

G.Haberlandt

73.

Which one of the following substance is responsible for callus formation

(a)

2,4-D

(b)

NAA

(c)

BAP

(d)

PEG

74.

Which one of the following is not s secondary metabolite?

(a)

Resins

(b)

Essential oils

(c)

Amino acids

(d)

Tannins

75.

In hybridization, the haploids combine the advantages of

(a)

Recombination

(b)

Segregation

(c)

Fixation

(d)

All of them

76.

Which of the following is included in biopesticide?

(a)

Viruses and bacteria

(b)

Viruses, bacteria and fungi

(c)

Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa and mites

(d)

Viruses, bacteria, fungi and protozoa

77.

Secondary producers are

(a)

Herbivores

(b)

Producers

(c)

Carnivores

(d)

None of the above

78.

Second most important trophic level in a lake is

(a)

Phytoplankton

(b)

Zooplankton

(c)

Benthas

(d)

Fishes

79.

The second trophic level in a lake is

(a)

Phytoplankton

(b)

Zooplankton

(c)

Benthos

(d)

Fishes

80.

Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain?

(a)

Producers

(b)

Primary consumers

(c)

Secondary consumers

(d)

Decomposers

81.

Which of the followin statements is true of Hydra?

(a)

It produces asexual gemmules

(b)

It produces unicellular bud.

(c)

It produces multicellur bud.

82.

Which of the following statement is true of Hydra?

(a)

It produces asexual gemmules

(b)

It produces unicellular bud

(c)

It produces multicellular bud.

83.

Which one of the following statements is true of cucurbits?

(a)

It is monoecious producing both staminate and pistillate flowers in the same plant.

(b)

It is monoecious producing staminate and pistillate flowers in two different plants.

(c)

It is dioecious producing staminate flowers in one plant and pistillate flowers in another.

84.

Which of the following statements is true of Bryophyllum?

(a)

Germinating bud appears from the eye of the stem tuber.

(b)

Germinating bud appears from the node of the rhizome.

(c)

Geminating bud appears from the notch at the leaf margin.

85.

Which of the following statements is true of yeast?

(a)

The cell divides by binary fission. One of them develops into a bud.

(b)

The cell divides unequally. The smaller cell develops into a bud.

(c)

The cell produces conidia, which develop into a bud.

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Answers Key:

Multiple Choice Question

85 x 1 = 85

(d)
Cyas

(d)
fully developed foetus and placenta

(a)
1st meiosis

(d)
A C E D B

(a)
Photochemical ring

(d)
60 db

10.

11.

(b)
Escherchia coli

12.

13.

14.

(d)
Hornbill and Indian Aconite

15.

(b)
4 - 6 \(\mu \)g/100 ml

16.

(a)
by creating a biosphere reverse

17.

18.

(a)
Conserve water

19.

20.

(b)
Desert

21.

22.

23.

24.

(b)
Ramapithecus

25.

(d)
Tyrannosaurus

26.

(d)
None of these

27.

(a)
Dryopithecus

28.

(b)
Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube.

29.

(a)
Progesterone

30.

(b)
determine any hereditary disease of the embryo

31.

32.

(d)
sterilization techniques

33.

(b)
synthesis of monoclonal antibodies

34.

35.

(a)
5' ------>3' direction continuously

36.

(d)
8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes

37.

(b)
both wall and the sporogenous cells

38.

(b)
75% will be tall with red fruit

39.

Birds

40.

(d)
Alecithal

41.

(b)
a bacterium

42.

43.

(d)
Reciprocal cross

44.

(d)
All of the above

45.

(b)
I, II and III

46.

(d)
All of the above

47.

48.

(d)
All of the above

49.

50.

(b)
TACGAACT

51.

52.

(b)
50% purple and 50% white

53.

(d)
Synergids

54.

(a)
Transposons

55.

(a)
Mutualism

56.

(b)
Prophage

57.

(b)
Lysergic acid diethylamide

58.

(d)
Arabidopsis

59.

(b)
Bacterial cells

60.

(b)
Mixed pollination

61.

(d)
Caffeine

62.

(d)
Cannabis

63.

(b)
PE < S < SE < DE

64.

(b)
introduction of foreign genes

65.

(a)
Claviceps, Papaver and Cannabis

66.

(b)
Shima Kura

67.

68.

(a)
Blue-green algae, rhizobia, other nitrogen fixing bacteria and mycorrhiza fungi

69.

(d)
Bio-insecticidal plants

70.

(a)
Francis Collins and Roderick

71.

(d)
All of them

72.

(a)
P.R White

73.

(a)
2,4-D

74.

75.

(d)
All of them

76.

77.

(a)
Herbivores

78.

(b)
Zooplankton

79.

(b)
Zooplankton

80.

(a)
Producers

81.

82.

83.

(a)
It is monoecious producing both staminate and pistillate flowers in the same plant.

84.

85.

(b)
The cell divides unequally. The smaller cell develops into a bud.

CBSE 12th Standard Biology Biodiversity and Conservation HOT Questions Study Material - QB365 Set D

QB365 Student Learing Managemnet System

Std: 12th Standard CBSE - Biology

chapter: Biodiversity and Conservation - HOT Questions

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Questions:

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